英 语
本试卷分A卷(选择题)和B卷(非选择题)两大部分。A卷第1至9页,满分100分;B 卷第9至10页,满分60分。全卷满分160分,考试时间120分钟。
注意事项:
1.答题前请仔细阅读答题卡上的注意事项。
2.所有试题的答案必须按题号填写在答题卡相应的位置上,在试卷上、草稿纸上答题无效。 3.考试结束后,监考人员将试卷和答题卡一并收回。
A卷(选择题 满分100分) 第一部分 听力(共三节;满分35分)
答题时,先将答案划在试卷上。听力部分结束前,你将有两分钟的时间将你的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话,每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读 下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
1.How does the girl go to school now?
A. By bus. B. By bike. C. By underground. 2. What will the man do in Hong Kong?
A. Take business classes. B. Spend his holiday. C. Have a meeting. 3. What’s the relatonship(关系) between the speakers?
A. Teacher and student. B. Mother and son. C. Husband and wife. 4. Where does the conversation take place most probably?
A. In a restaurant. B. In a cinema. C. In a classroom. 5. What are the speakers mainly talking about?
A. Watching TV. B. Doing homework. C. Cleaning the house. 第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
听下面3段对话。每段对话后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。在听每段对话前,你将有时间阅读各小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。 听第6段材料,回答第6至8三个小题。 6. What is Anna doing?
A. Shopping something. B. Having a party. C. Waiting for the boy. 7. What does she think the boy shouldn’t do?
A. Take a gift. B. Wear his uniform. C. Invite a friend to go. 8. What time will the boy leave home?
A. At 6:15 p.m. B. At 6:30 p.m. C. At 7:00 p.m. 听第7段材料,回答第9至11三个小题
9. Where does the man live now?
A. In London. B. In New York. C. In Pairs. 10. What do the tourists like most in Sanya?
A. Foods. B. Beaches. C. Hotels. 11. Who will the man discuss with?
A. His brother. B. His friend. C. His wife. 听第8段材料,回答第12至15四个小题
12. What did the boy do last Saturday morning?
A. He went shopping. B. He watched a game. C. He traveled to Shanghai. 13. How long did the girl’s piano lesson last?
A. 90 minutes. B.120 minutes. C. 60 minutes. 14. When ewill the girl’s father come back?
A. This Saturday. B. This Friday. C. This Thurday. 15. Who took photos of the game?
A. Tina. B. Nancy. C. Grorge. 听下面一段独白。独白后有5个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项并标在试卷的相应位置。在听独白前你将有时间阅读各小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。独白读两遍。 听第9段材料,回答第16至20五个小题
16. Where is Ben from?
A. England. B. America. C. France. 17. Which place did Ben go to first when he came to his new school?
A. The headmaster’s office. B. The school hall. C. The library. 18. What did the headmaster give Ben?
A. A geography book. B. A new uniform. C. A school map. 19. What color is Ben’s classroom door?
A. Blue. B. Red. C. White. 20. How did Ben feel about his first day at school?
A. Terrible. B. Proud. C. Surprised. 第二部分 基础知识运用(共两节,满分20分)
第一节 单项选择(共10小题;每小题0.5分,满分5分)
从各题所给A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出可以填入题内空白处的最佳答案,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
21. I want to be ________English teacher because English is ______useful language. A. a ; a B. an ; a C. a ; an D. an ; an
22.— When did Neil Armstrong walk on the moon? —________July 20th, 1969.
A. In B. At C. For D. On 23. The book ______was written by him is very interesting. A. who B. whom C. which D. / 24. —Where is Mike?
—I saw him_______with Mr. Smith in the hallways just now. A. to talk B. talking C. talked D. talks 25. —Which is Mary’s dictionary?
—This one is ________. That one is _______.
A. hers ; mine B. her ; mine C. hers ; my D. her ; me
26. Cathy is afraid of the dog. She will run away _______she sees it.
A. ever since B. although C. as soon as D. so that
27. Tom said he _______basketball with his classmates from 4:00 to 6:00 yesterday afternoon. A. is played B. was playing C. plays D. had played 28. —_______I return the books this week?
—No, you _______. You can do that next week?
A. Must; can’t B. May ; needn’t C. Need ; mustn’t D. Must ; needn’t 29. Could you tell me ______this morning?
A. what time you had breakfast B. where have you been
C. how did you get there D. why will you leave earlier 30. —Shall we go to the supermarket after school? I need to buy something. —________Let’s meet at the school gate at 5:00 p.m.
A. It doesn’t matter B. Are you OK? C. Why not? D. That’s all right.
第二节 完形填空(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后所给各题的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳 选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
It was my 14th birthday and I would have the biggest party ever. The number of the 31 had quickly grown from seven to seventeen. Nearly every girl in my class was 32 . When each guest excitedly 33 the invitation, is was especially happy. The 34 was full of shouts and laughter. We had just finished a game of Twister when the door bess rang. I was so 35 and I could feel my face turning red, because when I 36 the door, there at the front door and stood Sarah Westly—the quiet girl who sat next to me in music class——and she was holding a 37 . I thought about the guest list. How did I 38 to invite Sarah?
I remembered that I only added a name to the 39 when someone showed an interest in me. But Sarah had 40 done that. I accepted the box, a gift from Sarah, and asked her to join the party. “I can’t 41 ,” she said. “My dad’s waiting in the car.” At that moment I felt bad about forgetting to invite Sarah and really wanted her to rest for some time in my room. “Thanks, but I have to go,” she said, turning 42 towards the door. “See you Monday.”
I didn’t open the box until the party was 43 . Inside the small box was a ceramic(陶瓷) tabby cat. It was the best gift I had received 44 I didn’t like cats. I later 45 that the gift looked exactly like Sarah’s cat, Seymour. I didn’t know it then, but now I realize that Sarah was
my best friend.
31. A. boys B. guests C. books D. desks 32. A. invited B. invented C. showed D. suggested 33. A. made B. found C. accepted D. passed 34. A. classroom B. library C. restaurant D.living room 35. A. surprised B. angry C. proud D. sad 36. A. touched B. opened C. caught D.saw 37. A. cat B. toy C. pen D. box 38. A. forget B. stop C. hope D. choose 39. A. gift B. list C. diary D. box 40. A. still B. even C. never D. only 41. A. stand B. sing C. wait D. stay 42. A. quickly B. carefully C. finally D. early
43. A. ready B. successful C. over D. interesting 44. A. and B. so C. because D. though 45. A. took out B. found out C. thought out D. put out 第三部分阅读理解(共20小题;每小题2分,满分40分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出最佳答案,并在答题卡上将该 项涂黑。
A
Please Take my Children to Work Day (PTCW Day) first began as holiday for hark-working and tired stay-at-home mother to take a day off. Now, this day is fit for my parent. It was created in 2003 and is celebrated each year on June 25, but it isn’t a public holiday. It encourages friends and family to take care of the children so that the stay-at-home parent can have some time to relex.
Kamehameha Day is held on June 11 each year. Kamehaeha the Great was the monarch(君主) of Hawaii. He is famous and respected for establishing(建立) the Kingdom of Hawaii in 1810. Kamehaeha Day is a public holiday in Hawaii, and it is a day off for people. Schools and most businesses are closed.
D-Day is celebrated in the U.S. to memorize the Normandy landings in France on June 6, 1944.On that day, American army and other Allied forces (盟军) fought hard and the World War II(WWII) in Europe was over soon. It is not a public holiday. Businesses have normal opening hours.
Flag Day is celebrated on June14 each year to honor the United States flag. On the same day, the United States Army celebrates its birthday. Although Flag Day is a great celebration across he country, it is not a public holiday.
46. If you are a stay-at-home parents, what can you do to relax on PTCW Day?
A. Take a day off. B. Go to work earlier.
C. Look after children. D. Do some housework.
47. Which is public holiday?
A. PTCW Day. B. Kamehameha Day.
C. D-Day. D. Flag Day.
48. When is the United States Army’s birthday?
A. On June 6. B. On June 11. C. On June 14. D. On June 25. 49. What can we know about D-Day?
A. It is celebrated in France. B. The WW II ended before 1944.
C. Businesses are closed for it. D. The Normandy landing happened in 1944.
B
The Greens got a rather unhappy surprises when they tried to fly form Cardiff to Lanzarote last weekend. Because of a bad mistake at the airline check-in desk, the Greens got on the wrong flight(航班) and ended up in Ankara. So hwo did the mix-up happen?
It was five o’clock on Sunday morning when Charlie and Kate Green arrived at Cardiff airport with their nine-year-old daughter Tina. They checked in properly for their flight to Lanzarote, but the check-in attendant(服务员) made a mistake with their boarding passes and also sent them to the wrong boarding gate. Unluckily, it was so early and the Greens were feeling os tired and they didn’t notice anything wrong. What was worse, there weren’t nay announcements in the boarding gate area.
When the Greens finally got on the plane, Charlie and Kate Green fell asleep at once, though there were interesting films, magazines, newspapers and music for them to choose to spend the boring time. Little Tina took out s history book about Rome and read. Two hours later, she fell asleep, too. The didn’t wake up until six hours later, when the plane was landing. Suddenly, the flight attendant said. “Welcome to Ankara!” The Greens couldn’t believe it, and little Tina was quite unhappy. The family had to get of the plane and then pay £ 10 for tourist visa(签证). In the
end, they decided to get back home, arrive at 5:00 p.m. on the same day. 50. Where did he Greens plan to spend their weekend?
A. In Cardiff. B. In Lanzarote. C. In Rome. D. In Ankara. 51. What did little Tina do first on the plane?
A. She saw a film. B. She went to sleep.
C. She listened to music. D. She read a history book.
52. How did the Greens feel when they arrived in Ankara?
A. Bored. B. Excited. C. Interested. D.Surprised. 53. What’s the best title ofr the text?
A. What a Wrong Trip B. A Trip to Ankara
C. The Greens’ Trip D. How long a Trip
C
Joe Connor comes from Kinsley and works in an office in Kansas City. His job is a typical nine-to-five, Monday-to-Friday job. So at the weekend, he does something different. He likes traveling but he works as a volunteer too. He helps different people for free. Every weekend, there’s a new project.
This weekend, Joe is helping to build a house. You can see him in the photo. He’s movinga large blue panel(). It’s part of a wall. Joe isn’t a professional builder, but that’s the interesting thing about this project. The other people are “weekend builders” too. There “weekend builders” are from the small town of Greensburg in Kansas. A year ago, a tormado() hit their town. After the tornado, the community started a project to build new homes. The project is for 30 new homes. They get some help from a building company and a group of volunteers. Joe says, “I heard about the tornado and the new project. I knew some people in Greensburg. I wanted to help,” Joe’s
friends are here this weekend too. They’re working with Jill and Scott.
Jill and Scott are both from Pratt, and they are building their “dream house”. Jill (on the right) is standing near his new house. He’s holding a part of the new wall. They’re making the house that can fight against tornadoes—that’s why it has an unusual shape.
Their house is almost ready, so next weekend, Joe is moving to a different project. Why does he do so? “Though busy, I can help people, I can make friends and that is fun! So, why not?” he says.
54. How long does Joe work every workday?
A. 7 hours. B. 8 hours. C. 9 hours. D. 10 hours. 55. Which place did the tornado hit?
A. Kinsley. B. Kansas City. C. Pratt. D. Greensburg. 56. Why does Joe choose to work as a volunteer?
A. He can make money to travel. B. The work brings him pleasure.
C. He always has lots of free time. D. He is good at building houses.
57. What’s the writer of the text doing?
A. Showing different projects. B. Introducing a tornado.
C. Talking about a photo. D. Helping build a house.
D
Students in Kenya are returning for their third term. They begin their school year in January and it is broken up into three terms. In Kenya, in the past, students were not required to attend school an the education was not free, either.
I taugth math, English and physics at Chamasiri Secondary School whiel I was a teacher in Kenya. This school had four classrooms—one for each grade, Form 1, Form 2, Form 3 and Form 4. They are equivalent (对等) to our 9th ,10th ,11th, and 12th grade. Teachers traveled from classroom to classroom instead of the students going from room to room. The Form 1 class had 60 students, Form 2 had 45, Form 3 had 30, and Form 4 about 12 students. The class sizes became smaller as the grades continued on. Why did this happen? Many families were very poor and couldn’t afford the school fees(学费).
Most countryside schools in Kenya did not have a lot of money. As a result, there were very few textbooks for the students to use. I had seven math texts for my Form 2 class and 14 for the Form 1 class. Anything the students needed to know was put up on the blackboard and the students copied it down into their noetbooks. The notebooks became the students’ textbooks.
Kenya students study ten different subject areas. Some of the students spend over an hour running home. They do chores at home and hopefully manage to find some time to study before it gets dark. Most familes do not have electricity and may not even have candles for their children to study by.
Luckily, Kenya education has been becoming better and better in the past few years. I’m sure it will have a good future.
58. Which grade does Form 3 refer to (指的是) in ther writer’s country? A. Grade 9. B. Grade 10. C. Grade 11. D. Grade 12. 59. Why did the notebooks become the students’ textbooks?
A. The students did not pay the schools.
B. The schools couldn’t afford the textbooks. C. The students preferred to use their notebooks.
D. The teachers asked the students to take notes. 60. Why do some students run home from school?
A. They aren’t allowed to stay at school. B. They don’t like studing in the school. C. They hope to have more time to study. D. They want to get candles in the stores.
61. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT TRUE?
A. In Kenya, a school year has three terms. B. The Form 1 class had the most students. C. Each family has electricity in Kenya. D. Kenya education has been improving.
E
For thousands of years, humans have explored(探索) the Earth. Nowadays, we are exploring space. Astronomers (天文学家) are modern-day explorers. Now, many astronomers are looking for new planets and new places of humans to live in the future. But where do astronomers start looking?
First of all, astronomers look for a star. That’s because our own Earth moves around a star (the Sun). More importantly, it is the correct distance(距离) from the Sun for heat and light. So when astronomers have found the star, they look at the planets around it. In recent years,
astronomers have found nearly 400 new planets with stars. However, many of these planets are either too near to the star or too far away.
However, if the planet is in a good position, astronomers look for three key things: water, air and rock. Water is important because all life needs water. Humans can drink it and they can also grow plants with water. And plants produce air for humans to breathe and food to eat. Rock on a planet is also important. That’s because there is often water under the rock.
After many years of scrutinizing, astronomers have found a planet that is similar to the Earth. It’s Gliese 581g and it’s near a star. The astronomers think it has water and rock and the average(平均的) temperature is between-310C and -120C. That’s cold，but not colder than Antarctica or Arctic Circle, for example, Gliese 581g is bigger than the Earth. A year on Gliese 581g is only 37 Earth days instead of 365. But astronomers do not think there are big differences and some them thing Gliese 581g will be a new Earth. However, Gliese 581g is twenty light years from the Earth.
62. What do astronomers have to find first before starting to look for a new place for humans to have?
A. A new star. B. A new planet. C. Some heat. D. Some light. 63. What does the rock on a planet tell us?
A. The star is a right position.
B. We may discover water under it. C. The planet is too near to the Sun. D. There can be air around the rock.
64. What does the underlined word “scrutinizing” mean in the last paragraph?
A. discussing B. waiting C. looking D.traveling 65. What’s the main idea of the text?
A. Gliese 581g is already a new Earth. B. There are planets similar to our Earth. C. Water, air and rock are important.
D. Astronomers are looking for a new Earth.
第三部分阅读理解(共20小题;每小题2分,满分40分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出最佳答案,并在答题卡上将该 项涂黑。
第四部分 句子成分(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
指出下列句子画线部分是什么句子成分,从A、B、C、D中选出正确答案,并在机读卡上将该项涂黑。
66. It’s getting colder and colder these days. A. 表语 B. 定语 C. 状语 D. 宾语 67. There are some volunteers in the park. A. 表语 B. 宾语 C. 主语 D. 定语 68. I go to the movies once a week. A. 宾语 B. 状语 C. 表语 D. 定语 69. It is fair to give Anna the prize in the painting competition. A. 形式主语 B. 直接宾语 C. 间接宾语 D. 真正主语
70. We’d like more students to join the story telling club. A. 状语 B. 直接宾语 C. 宾语补助语 D. 谓语
B卷 (非选择题,共三节,满分60分)
注意事项:
1答题前将密封线内的项目填写清楚。
2.用0.5毫米签字笔答在答题卡上,在试卷上答题无效。 第一节任务型阅读(共5小题;每小题3分,满分15分) 阅读下列短文,按照每题后的单词要求数量回答问题。
The Seed Vault(种子地窖)
A lot of countries need different kinds of seeds so that they can plant them again. There is an important reason for this. Sometimes plants can’t grow in a country because of bad weather or disease, so farmers need new seeds.
You can keep seeds in a “seed vault”. It’s a place at a special temperature. The seeds don’t grow, but they can live for a long time. Norway has the biggest seed vault in the world—the Svalbard Global Seed Vault —and it has seeds from a lot of different countries.
The vault is on the island of Spitsbergen. The island is about one thousand kilometers from the North Pole. It’s a very cold place so it’s good for seeds. Above the ground, the doorway is small, but inside, the building is huge. You walk down a long corridor(走廊), which is one hundred and thirty meters inside a mountain. At the end of it, there are three large areas with seeds.
There are about half a million kinds of seeds inside the vault. For example, there are kinds of seeds for nice from Asia and Africa, 32 kinds of seeds for potatoes from Ireland and seeds for different tomatoes from the USA.
The seed vault has space for a lot more seeds. You can put about 2.2 billion(十亿)seeds inside. The seeds can live here for thousands of years because of the cold temperature of -180C. So, in the future, humans can grow any seed they want. In other words, the seed vault is the difference between life and death.
71. Why can’t plants grow in a country?(within 6 words) 72. Where is the biggest seed vault in the world?(within 2 word) 73. How far is the Svalbard Global Seed Vault from the North Pole?(within 4 words) 74. How many seeds can be put in the seed vault? 75. What place is seed vault? (within 12 words)
第二节 汉译英(共5小题;每小题3分,满分15分) 将下列句子翻译成英语。
76. 这个星期天下午我与Mike去购物了。 77. 他的梦想将会实现。
78. 在我们学校，学生不允许使用手机(mobile phone)。 79. 这位老人习惯于早上7点起床。
80. 你读得越多，你就会学得越多。
第三节书面表达(共1题;满分30分)
假设你叫李华,你校英语报正在以“我最喜欢的一天”为题，向中学生开展征文活动。请你根据如下内容提示,用英语写一篇短文，向该报社投稿。
1.你最喜欢的是星期五； 2.原因：(1)这天有你最喜欢上的音乐课(从小就喜欢音乐，音乐老师和音乐课很有趣)；
(2)……
要求:
(1)所写内容必须包括以上要点和自行补充要点; (2)文中不得出现真实姓名和校名; (3)内容连贯并进行合理拓展;
(4)100词左右；题目已经写好，不计入总词数。 My Favorite Day
______________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________
因篇幅问题不能全部显示，请点此查看更多更全内容